Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 03.07.2025 00:48

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why should the US public listen to Lauren Boebert, the queen of hypocrisy tell us, "We need morals back in our nation" when her real-time video is the heartbeat of immoral? Why does her audio not match her video?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.